Q & A's For The PMBOK Guide Third Edition 3rd Edition Frank T. Anbari - Solutions

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The Requirements Traceability Matrix helps in tracing all of the following except:A. Requirements to project objectives B. Requirements to project scope C. Requirements to test strategy D. Requirements to project risk
If you are measuring the quality of items in a sample on a pass/fail basis, what is that called?A. Attribute sampling B. Biased sampling C. Variable sampling D. Stratified sampling
A project manager scheduled a review at the end of a phase, with the objective of obtaining authorization to close the current project phase and initiate the next phase. Which of the following is an incorrect way of describing this review?A. Phase gate B. Phase planning C. Kill point D. Stage gate
Mary is currently focusing on controlling the key stakeholder engagement on her project. The project management plan is an essential input to this process. Which of the following components of the project management plan is least likely to be utilized during this process?A. Stakeholder
Which process of integrative project management documents the actions necessary to define, prepare, integrate, and coordinate all subsidiary plans into a project management plan?A. Direct and Manage Project Work B. Monitor and Control Project Work C. Develop Project Charter D. Develop Project
If you are working on a project with constantly changing scope, which contract type would work best when hiring an outside vendor to complete a portion of the work?A. Cost reimbursable B. Lump sum C. Time and material D. Fixed price
If you want a group of experts to identify project risks, but also want unbiased data, what is an appropriate technique to use?A. Interviewing B. Delphi technique C. Assumption analysis D. Brainstorming
If you are writing a proposal for additional funding, which communication style should you choose?A. formal and horizontal B. formal and vertical C. informal and vertical D. informal and horizontal
Your company has temporarily assigned you to serve as a project manager at a company location outside your home country. While meeting with a vendor your first day on the job, you are presented with a gift. The corporate policy at the headquarters in your home country prohibits employees from
95 D. The cost variance is -5,000
05 B. The cost variance is 5,000 C. The cost variance is
If the project's current total earned value (EV) is $100,000 and the actual amount spent (AC) is $95,000, what is the cost variance of the project?A. The cost variance is
A RACI chart is an example of a _________________.A. Network B. Flowchart C. Responsibility assignment matrix D. Hierarchical-type organization chart
Which of these precedence relationships is least commonly used in Precedence Diagramming Method?A. Start to Start B. Finish to Finish C. Finish to Start D. Start to Finish
During the Plan Procurement Management phase, the make-or-____analysis must be completed. This technique prompts the project team to determine the source of their item.A. lease B. buy C. find D. ignore
A large network hardware upgrade project was scheduled to take place over a weekend. During the course of the implementation, several previously unidentified dependencies for additional materials were discovered. The project manager gave approval for the tech staff doing the implementation procure
Which of the following is a tool or technique used in the Monitor and Control Project Work process?A. Expert judgment B. Rejected change requests C. Earned value technique D. Change control tools
Which of the following is a hierarchical representation of project risks?A. Risk Register B. Risk Mitigation C. Risk categories D. Risk Breakdown Structure
The most detailed level of the WBS is called the _______________ .A. WBS element B. Work package C. Project scope D. Deliverable
) What is the logical sequence of the Project Scope Management processes?A. Create WBS, Collect Requirements, Define Scope, Validate Scope, and Control Scope B. Define Scope, Collect Requirements, Create WBS, Validate Scope, and Control Scope C. Plan Scope Management, Collect Requirements, Define
) All of the following are interpersonal skills EXCEPT:A. Resisting to change B. Building trust C. Resolving conflict D. Active listening
) If you are requesting a vendor quote for a defined scope, what is the recommended contract type?A. Fixed price B. Commission C. Cost reimbursable D. Time and materials
If you are influencing factors that create changes to the cost of the project, which process are you using?A. Negotiate Costs B. Estimate Costs C. Control Costs D. Determine Budget
After brainstorming potential project risks, what is the recommended method for prioritizing these risks and their mitigation plans?A. RACI chart B. Control chart C. Fishbone Diagram D. Probability and impact matrix
Perform Integrated Change Control includes several configuration management activities. Which of the following is not part of Perform Integrated Change Control?A. Change request B. Configuration Verification C. Configuration Status Accounting D. Configuration Identification
With the establishment of a PMO in an organization, the project management jargon is being adopted by the employees. However, few people are still struggling with the project management terminologies. One of the most common confusion is the difference between a project stakeholder and a key
Which of the following is not an organizational process asset that is used during the Plan Human Resource Management process?A. Template for organizational charts B. Template for position descriptions C. Standardized role descriptions D. Standardized stakeholder list
Which of the following statements most accurately describes a project scenario?A. Changes in project scope during the initial phases of the project are very expensive.B. The influence of the stakeholders is the same all through the project.C. Staffing peaks up during the execution phase of a
What is the primary risk with including reserves or contingency allowances in your cost estimate?A. Cancelling your project B. Understating the cost estimate C. Overstating the cost estimate D. Tracking the funds
The Create WBS process identifies the deliverables at the __________ level in the Work Breakdown Structure (WBS).A. Lowest B. Any C. Tenth D. Highest
Linda has been assigned to establish a PMO in her organization. Linda believes that this project cannot be successful unless all of the key project stakeholders support the project. She also believes that she needs to pay special attention on stakeholder management to ensure success of this
As you are creating the Activity List, which technique is recommended for subdividing the project into smaller components called activities?A. Decomposition B. Rolling Wave Planning C. Expert judgment D. Deconstruction
A fundamentally functional organization creates a special project team to handle a critical project. This team has many of the characteristics of a project team in a project organization and has a Project manager dedicated to the project. Such an organization would be called:A. A projectized
You are a consulting project manager and have been contracted by an investment bank to run a large information technology project that is expected to last 15 months. During the Direct and Manage Project Work process, you discover that several regulatory requirements have not been addressed in the
Daniel is managing the development of an ecommerce website for his organization. Daniel enjoys coercive powers and has assigned Julie, a project team member, to facilitate the team meetings. During any team meeting, Julie must?A. Influence team members to support the project manager's decisions B.
Workaround is: A. A response to a negative risk that has occurred. A workaround is not planned in advance of the occurrence of the risk event. B. A contingency plan. C. Implementation of the contingency plan for a positive risk event. D. Using global sourcing to continue project development around
The performance measurement baseline: A. Typically covers the schedule, and occasionally the cost parameters of a project, but may not include technical and quality parameters. B. Changes frequently to accommodate current information about the project. C. Is the approved plan for the project work
All of the following are true about the product life cycle EXCEPT: A. It is collection of generally sequential, non- overlapping product phases. B. The last product life cycle phase for a product is generally the product's deterioration and death. C. Generally, a project life cycle is contained
The approved project baseline should be changed: A. When a sequence of activities has taken longer than originally planned. B. To reflect approved project scope, cost, schedule, and technical changes. C. When the productivity within a certain discipline has been higher than originally planned. D.
A chart of accounts: A. Is used to monitor project costs by WBS elements. B. Is any numbering system used to monitor project costs by category (e.g., labor, supplies, materials, and equipment). C. Is developed as part of the project charter. D. Provides a graphical representation of project costs
FFP is an acronym for: A. Free-Flow Performance. B. Firm-Fixed-Price. C. Free-Form Project. D. Fixed-File Procurement.
What does cost of quality mean? A. The sacrifice of unessential project objectives to meet essential quality standards. B. The life cycle cost of the project. C. Determining the costs incurred to ensure quality. D. The cost of meeting project objectives.
The project's performance measurement baseline: A. Is used for management control. B. Changes frequently. C. Documents relevant standards. D. Generally can be changed by the project team.
In what way does free float differ from total float? A. Free float is the amount of total float that does not affect the end date, whereas total float is the accumulated amount of free float. B. There is no difference-the two terms are functionally equivalent. C. Free float is the amount of time
All of the following are characteristics of a work package EXCEPT: A. It is a deliverable or project work component at the lowest level of each branch of the work breakdown structure. B. It is a summary task at the top level of the WBS. C. It includes the schedule activities required for completion
Scope definition is: A. The process of developing a detailed project scope statement as the basis for future project decisions. B. Determining the responses needed to perform project activities. C. Analysis of activity sequence, duration, and resource requirements. D. A written statement
Scope planning for a project is: A. The project specification that includes design principles and project objectives. B. A three-level project work breakdown structure. C. The process of creating a project scope management plan. D. The record showing that all project deliverables are completed
A stakeholder is a(n): A. Project engineer. B. Individual or agency that controls contingency funds. C. Organization's corporate attorney. D. Person or organization that is actively involved in the project, or whose interests may be positively or negatively affected by execution or completion of
A code of accounts: A. Is any numbering system used to uniquely identify each component of the work breakdown structure. B. Includes work packages, used to track phase completion. C. Is an organizational scheme to keep track of contracts. D. Charts elements of the WBS against the timeline.
Baseline is the approved: A. Project schedule and budget. B. Description in the project charter. C. Time phased plan, plus or minus approved project scope, cost, schedule, and technical changes. D. Starting point for contract negotiations.
A cost-plus-fixed-fee (CPFF) contract has all of the following characteristics EXCEPT: A. Seller is reimbursed for allowable costs for performing the contract work. B. Seller receives a fixed fee payment calculated as a percentage of the actual project costs. C. Seller receives a fixed fee payment
All of the following are tools and techniques for selecting sellers EXCEPT: A. Independent estimates. B. Weighting system. C. Screening system. D. Resource distribution system.
Evaluation criteria are developed and used to rate or score proposals. These criteria have all of the following characteristics EXCEPT: A. They can be objective, such as, "The proposed project manager needs to be a certified Project Management Professional (or PMP"). B. They can be subjective, such
Outputs from the Contract Closure process include all of the following EXCEPT: A. Closed contract(s). B. Formal confirmation of deliverable acceptance or rejection. C. The request for proposal (RFP) or request for quotation (RFQ), and the seller's working proposal. D. Lessons learned documentation.
All of the following are true about the statement of work (SOW) EXCEPT: A. It can include specifications, quantity desired, quality levels, performance data, period of performance, work location, and other requirements. B. It should be as ambiguous, as incomplete, and as wordy as possible to allow
Different types of contracts are more or less appropriate for different types of purchases. Contracts generally fall into one of the following broad categories EXCEPT: A. Request for proposal (RFP). B. Fixed-price or lump-sum contracts. C. Cost-reimbursable contracts. D. Time and material (T&M)
Which of these terms is one of the three used to describe contested changes and constructive changes where the buyer and seller cannot agree on compensation for the change, or cannot agree that a change has even occurred? A. Forcing. B. Mediation. C. Complaints. D. Disputes.
The procurement audit has all of the following characteristics EXCEPT: A. It maintains a complete file of contract-related records. B. It is a structured review of the procurement process. C. It is a review of various processes from Plan Purchases and Acquisitions through Contract Administration.
Constructive changes are: A. Postponed as long as possible to protect the budget. B. Viewed as negative, quantified, and tabulated. C. Uniquely identified and documented by project correspondence. D. Submitted for bids to the relevant vendor list.
Which category of contract is often used for a well-defined product? A. Unit-price contract. B. Fixed-price or lump-sum contract. C. Cost-reimbursable contract. D. Partnership contract.
The buyer, usually through its authorized contract administrator, provides the seller with as an output of the contract closure process. A. A formal written notice that the deliverables have been accepted or rejected B. Letters of commendation to all project staff C. Informal notice of acceptance
The payment system includes all of the following characteristics EXCEPT: A. Appropriate reviews and approvals by the project management team. B. Payments are made in accordance with the terms of the contract. C. Negotiations occur over price and other terms of the contract. D. Payments to the
Which of the following is false about advertising as a tool and technique of the Request Seller Responses process? A. It is sometimes required on government projects. B. It can often be used to expand the existing lists of potential sellers. C. It can cause public pressure resulting in bid
Approved change requests can include all of the following EXCEPT: A. Modifications to the terms and conditions of the contract. B. Modification to the description of the products, services, or results to be provided. C. Seller invoices. D. Modification to pricing.
Generally, a bid differs from a proposal in that the term: A. Proposal is used when source selection will be based on price. B. Proposal is used when the project time frame is limited. C. Bid is used when source selection will be based on price. D. Proposal disregards price considerations.
The buyer structures procurement documents to accomplish all of the following EXCEPT: A. Facilitate an accurate and complete response from each prospective seller. B. Include the relevant contract statement of work and any required contractual provisions. C. Include a description of the desired
All of the following are inputs to the Plan Purchases and Acquisitions process EXCEPT: A. Project scope statement. B. Enterprise environmental factors. C. Application area extensions. D. Work breakdown structure.
Expected monetary value (EMV) analysis has all of the following characteristics EXCEPT: A. It is a statistical concept that calculates the average outcome when the future includes scenarios that may or may not happen. B. The EMV of opportunities will generally be expressed as positive values, while
As an output of risk monitoring and control, an updated risk register generally contains some or all of the following EXCEPT: A. The work breakdown structure (WBS). B. Outcomes of risk reassessments, risk audits, and periodic risk reviews. C. Updates to probability, impact, priority, response
Qualitative Risk Analysis assesses the priority of identified risks using all of the following EXCEPT: A. Probability of occurring of identified risks. B. Impact on project objectives if the identified risks do occur. C. A mathematical technique to create a false impression of precision and
The risk management plan generally includes all of the following EXCEPT: A. Methodology. B. Definitions of risk probability and impact. C. Responses to individual risks. D. Probability and impact matrix.
Decision tree analysis has all of the following characteristics EXCEPT: A. It is usually structured using a decision tree diagram that describes a situation under consideration, and the implications of each of the available choices and possible scenarios. B. It incorporates the cost of each
Sensitivity analysis: A. Examines the extent to which the uncertainty of project objectives affects each project element simultaneously. B. Examines the extent to which the uncertainty of each project element affects the objective being examined when all other uncertain elements are held at their
The risk score: A. Is calculated by multiplying the probability of a risk occurring times its impact (ratio scale) on an objective (e.g., cost, time, scope, or quality) if it does occur. B. Is the sum of squares of the scale values assigned to the estimates of probability and impact. C. Cannot be
The Delphi technique has all of the following characteristics EXCEPT: A. It is a way to reach a consensus of experts on a subject such as project risk. B. It is a technique in which project risk experts participate anonymously. C. It helps reduce bias in the data and keeps any one person from
The outputs from Risk Monitoring and Control include all of the following EXCEPT: A. Requested changes. B. Work breakdown structure (WBS). C. Recommended corrective actions. D. Updates to the risk register.
Evaluating the impact of a risk on project objectives (e.g., cost, schedule, scope, and quality) has the following characteristics EXCEPT: A. Relative scales for impact are simply rank-ordered descriptors, such as "very low," "low," "moderate," "high," and "very high." These descriptors reflect
As an output of Quantitative Risk Analysis, the risk register is updated. These updates include: A. Prioritized list of quantified risks. B. Probabilistic analysis of the threats to ignore and opportunities to accept. C. Checklists, corrective actions, and quantified decision trees. D. Direction,
The tools and techniques of Quantitative Risk Analysis are: A. Contracting, contingency planning, alternative strategies, and insurance. B. Interviewing, historical results, workarounds, and additional response development. C. Checklists, damage control reports, standard allowances, and inspection.
Outputs from Risk Response Planning include all of the following EXCEPT: A. Risk register updates. B. Corrective actions. C. Risk-related contractual agreements. D. Project management plan updates.
The major processes of risk management are: A. Planning, Identification, Documentation, and Assessment. B. Identification, Planning, Evaluation, Response Development, Mitigation, and Documentation. C. Identification, Response Development, Assessment, and Documentation. D. Planning, Identification,
All of the following are inputs to Risk Identification EXCEPT: A. Risk management plan. B. Project management plan. C. Work-around plan. D. Project scope statement.
A thorough review of. will help identify potential risks to the project. A. Risk identification checklists based on historical information and knowledge B. The project's change control system C. The project's mission statement D. The project's budget
An output of Risk Identification is: A. A risk register. B. Expected monetary value of the risk events. C. Corrective actions. D. The plan for mitigation.
In Risk Response Planning, an acceptance strategy indicates that the project team has decided: A. To agree with the project manager. B. To climinate a specific threat. C. Not to change the project management plan to deal with a risk, or is unable to identify any other suitable response strategy. D.
To be successful, the organization should be committed to addressing the management of risk: A. Just before a meeting with a client. B. Proactively and consistently throughout the project. C. As soon as time and cost estimates are ready. D. Early in the execution phase.
Risk transference nearly always involves: A. Eliminating risk through beta testing. B. Policies and procedures for a response system. C. Accepting a lower profit if some activities overrun. D. Payment of a risk premium to the party taking on the risk.
Strategies typically used to deal with threats or risks that may have negative impacts on project objectives if they occur include all of the following EXCEPT: A. Interpret. B. Avoid. C. Transfer. D. Mitigate.
Specific results from lessons learned generally include all of the following EXCEPT: A. Update of the lessons learned knowledge base. B. Updating the statement of work to reflect training and learning requirements. C. Input to knowledge management system. D. Updated corporate policies, procedures,
The total number of communication channels for a project with n = 12 stakeholders is: A. n(n-1)/2. B. 2n/(n-1). C. 2(n-1)/n. D. 47 communications channels.
All of the following are information distribution methods EXCEPT: A. Project meetings. B. Hard-copy document distribution. C. Inputting data into a spreadsheet. D. Electronic communication and conferencing tools.
Communicating has many dimensions that include all of the following EXCEPT: A. Written and oral, listening, and speaking. B. Internal and external. C. Conceptual and definitive. D. Formal and informal.
The performance reporting process involves the collection of all baseline data, and distribution of performance information to stakeholders. Performance reporting should generally provide information on: A. Scope, schedule, cost, and quality. B. Reward and recognition information system. C.
As part of the communications process, the receiver is responsible for: A. Agreeing with the sender's message. B. Pretending that the message is received only partially, to encourage further discussions. C. Making sure that the information is received in its entirety and understood correctly. D.
Information typically required to determine project communications requirements includes all of the following EXCEPT: A. Project organization and stakeholder responsibility relationships. B. Logistics of how many persons will be involved with the project and at which locations. C. Disciplines,
As part of the communications process, the sender is responsible for: A. Ensuring the receiver agrees with the message. B. Confirming that the information is properly understood. C. Presenting the information in the most favorable manner. D. Interpreting the message correctly.
Tools and techniques for performance reporting include all of the following EXCEPT: A. Information presentation tools. B. Decision tree analysis. C. Cost reporting systems. D. Status review meetings.
Communications technology factors that can affect the project include all of the following EXCEPT: A. The length of the project. B. The availability of technology. C. Executive requirements. D. The urgency of the need for information.
Manual filing systems, electronic databases, project management software, and systems that allow access to technical documentation are examples of: A. Information distribution. B. Internal communication systems. C. Information gathering and retrieval systems. D. Project records.
Inputs to communications planning include: A. Enterprise environmental factors, organizational process assets, project scope statement, and project management plan. B. Stakeholder requirements, project logistics, project budget, and project schedule. C. Stakeholder analysis, communications

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Q & A's For The PMBOK Guide Third Edition 3rd Edition Frank T. Anbari - Solutions

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