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megaproject management
Project Management Workbook And PMP/CAPM Exam Study Guide 12th Edition Harold R. Kerzner , Frank P. Saladis - Solutions
Which of the following is generally not a benefit achieved from using project management?a. Flexibility in the project’s end dateb. Improved risk managementc. Improved estimatingd. Tracking of projects
Which of the following is usually not part of the criteria for project success?a. Customer satisfactionb. Customer acceptancec. Meeting at least 75 percent of specification requirementsd. Meeting the triple constraint requirements
Which of the following is not associated with the definition of a project?a. Repetitive activitiesb. Constraintsc. Consumption of resourcesd. A well-defined objective
The triple constraints commonly associated with managing a project are:a. Time, cost, and profitabilityb. Resources required, sponsorship involvement, and fundingc. Time, cost, and quality and/or scoped. Calendar dates, facilities available, and funding
What are the four values of the Agile Manifesto?
What are the core competencies a project manager must demonstrate to successfully execute the position?
What are the major constraints generally considered during capacity planning?
What is the difference between a job description and a competency model?
Why does an organization experience high levels of risk and difficulty when attempting to achieve level three of the project management maturity model?
Why is it important to identify and document best practices? Why is continuous improvement a major factor in achieving project management maturity?
What is the major difference between the CPM (critical path method) and critical chain method?
What does the acronym DMAIC refer to?
How does agile project management differ from what is known as “traditional”project management?
The five levels of the Project Management Maturity Model are:
As part of the management of quality, audits are often scheduled. What is the purpose of a quality audit?
A control chart indicates that more than 7 consecutive data points appear above the center line of process average. What does this indicate?
Which of the following would be the most appropriate tool to display a grouping of potential problems by category after a brainstorming session?a. Histogramb. Affinity diagramc. Ishikawa diagramd. WBS
The Pareto diagram displays information by lowest frequency of occurrence to highest frequency.☐☐ True☐☐ False
The project manager should not be held accountable for the quality of the end result of a deliverable if the work was performed in departments that were not under the project manager’s influence or control.☐☐ True☐☐ False
Explain the difference between accuracy and precision.
Provide examples of the cost of quality component “internal failure”.
What is meant by the 80/20 rule as it relates to quality management?
Match the terms on the left to the correct meaning on the right.a. Mean Most frequentb. Mode Middle valuec. Median Average
Total quality management is a program that is targeted specifically for the upper management of an organization.☐☐ True☐☐ False
The project sponsor is ultimately responsible for the quality of the project results.☐☐ True☐☐ False
Six Sigma is a method of quality management that focuses on the control of a process to achieve 3.4 defects per million opportunities of failure.☐☐ True☐☐ False
Attribute sampling is focused on a pass/fail or conform/does not conform decision basis.☐☐ True☐☐ False
There are two types of control charts—variable charts and attribute charts.☐☐ True☐☐ False
The use of a control chart is focused on prevention of defects.☐☐ True☐☐ False
PM Quick Check: Which of the following charts is most commonly associated with cause-and-effect analysis?a. Check sheetb. Pareto diagramc. Histogramd. Fishbone or Ishikawa diagram
The following table is an example of aa. Pareto diagramb. Ishikawa diagramc. Control chartd. Check sheet
Project managers have accountability for project success but can delegate to others the project manager’s responsibility for quality.☐☐ True☐☐ False
If the upper and lower control limits are set at X ± 3σ, then 99.73% of the products are expected to fall within these limits.☐☐ True☐☐ False
Cause and effect charts are commonly used to identify the source of both quality problems and risks.☐☐ True☐☐ False
Pareto charts are used to identify quality problems.☐☐ True☐☐ False
Quality circles are executive-level quality control teams.☐☐ True☐☐ False
Histograms are quality control tools.☐☐ True☐☐ False
Six Sigma applies to manufacturing only.☐☐ True☐☐ False
The alternative to Three Sigma is Six Sigma.☐☐ True☐☐ False
Correction to quality problems should be documented.☐☐ True☐☐ False
Quality is defined by the customer.☐☐ True☐☐ False
Training to support total quality management begins with the executive levels of management.☐☐ True☐☐ False
Quality is inspection.☐☐ True☐☐ False
Each of the pioneers in the left column was also known for some other contribution to the quality effort. Match the pioneer with the contribution.a. Deming Cost of qualityb. Juran 85%–15% rulec. Crosby Quality is free
Each of the pioneers in the left column had an approach they followed to improve quality. Match the approach on the right to the pioneer.a. Deming The trilogyb. Juran The four absolutesc. Crosby Plan-do-check-act cycle
In the left column are the names of three of the pioneers in project quality management.In the right column are their definitions of quality. List the correct definition next to the each name.a. Deming Conformance to requirementsb. Juran Fitness for usec. Crosby Continuous improvement
Which of the following are true about Taguchi’s approach to quality?a. Quality should be designed into the product.b. Quality should be inspected into the product.c. Senior management must take a visible role in managing defects.d. The cost of quality is associated with nonconformance.e. Cost of
Match the principles with the appropriate quality guru (Deming, Juran, Crosby, or Taguchi).Principle Gurua. Trilogy of quality improvement, quality planning, and quality controlb. Design of experimentsc. Pioneered statistics and samplingd. Fitness for usee. Achieving zero defects is possible.f. The
Deming postulated that 85% of all quality problems required:a. Employee actionb. Statistical analysisc. Management initiative and actiond. The use of control charts
The Shewhart chart, which was adapted by W. Edwards Deming as a basis for illustrating the quality management process, is associated with which of the following flows?a. Initiate, plan, execute, control, closeb. Plan, do, check, actc. Prevention, inspection, internal failure, external failured.
Under what conditions would a buyer terminate a contract by default?
Explain the advantages and disadvantages of the decision to use a single source as a supplier.
Extent of seller subcontracting required.☐☐ Yes☐☐ No
Amount of concurrent contracts that the seller is now working on.☐☐ Yes☐☐ No
Contractor’s ability to perform earned value measurement.☐☐ Yes☐☐ No
Contractor’s responsibility and risk.☐☐ Yes☐☐ No
Performance period.☐☐ Yes☐☐ No
Urgency of requirements.☐☐ Yes☐☐ No
Cost/price analysis (i.e., validity).☐☐ Yes☐☐ No
Extent of price competition.☐☐ Yes☐☐ No
Type and complexity of requirements.☐☐ Yes☐☐ No
Overall degree of cost and schedule risk.☐☐ Yes☐☐ No
Back-charging is when the buyer reopens a closed-out contract and pays the seller to perform additional work.☐☐ True☐☐ False
An order of precedence clause in a contract states which deliverables in the contract must be completed first.☐☐ True☐☐ False
A letter contract or letter of intent allows the seller to begin work prior to the signing of the final contract and spend a specified amount of the final contract price.☐☐ True☐☐ False
The point of total assumption is the point where the buyer pays all additional costs over the target price.☐☐ True☐☐ False
Each contract type is a sharing of risk between the buyer and seller.☐☐ True☐☐ False
Term contracts can be completed without any deliverables being produced.☐☐ True☐☐ False
Contracts are enforceable in a court of law even if the contract was not for a legal purpose.☐☐ True☐☐ False
Verbal contracts, based upon mutual agreement, are enforceable in a court of law.☐☐ True☐☐ False
Part of contract negotiations is to prepare a complete price/cost analysis.☐☐ True☐☐ False
Project procurement strategies (as opposed to corporate procurement strategies)most frequently allow for sole source procurement.☐☐ True☐☐ False
Validation of a bid protest.☐☐ Yes☐☐ No
Project closeout.☐☐ Yes☐☐ No
Payment schedules.☐☐ Yes☐☐ No
Project termination.☐☐ Yes☐☐ No
Resolution of disputes.☐☐ Yes☐☐ No
Issuing of waivers.☐☐ Yes☐☐ No
Production surveillance.☐☐ Yes☐☐ No
Interpretation of specifications.☐☐ Yes☐☐ No
Approval of scope changes.☐☐ Yes☐☐ No
Selecting the buyer’s project manager.☐☐ Yes☐☐ No
Selecting the seller’s project manager.☐☐ Yes☐☐ No
Determining a breach of contract.☐☐ Yes☐☐ No
Preparing a report card on the seller.☐☐ Yes☐☐ No
Request for proposal (RFP)For each of the three methods for acquisitions, select the correct response from among the three options provided.a. Request for a formal response but usually just a cost or price without any supporting information.b. A request to see if the information is available, and
Request for quotation (RFQ)For each of the three methods for acquisitions, select the correct response from among the three options provided.a. Request for a formal response but usually just a cost or price without any supporting information.b. A request to see if the information is available, and
Request for information (RFI)For each of the three methods for acquisitions, select the correct response from among the three options provided.a. Request for a formal response but usually just a cost or price without any supporting information.b. A request to see if the information is available,
Qualified sellers list☐☐ Yes☐☐ No
Adverting in a trade journal☐☐ Yes☐☐ No
The process for change control.☐☐ Yes☐☐ No
Listing of qualified bidders expected to respond.☐☐ Yes☐☐ No
Proposal evaluation criteria.☐☐ Yes☐☐ No
Specialized documentation (i.e., compliance with OSHA, EEO, EPA, etc.).☐☐ Yes☐☐ No
How payments will be made to the seller.☐☐ Yes☐☐ No
Name of the contract administrator☐☐ Yes☐☐ No
Bidder conferences (how often and when).☐☐ Yes☐☐ No
Name of the project manager.☐☐ Yes☐☐ No
Now it’s your turn. A company needs some equipment for 120 days to meet contractual requirements. The rental cost is $200 per day and the leasing cost is$10,000 plus $75 per day. Should the company rent or lease?
The supplier base is unreliable.☐☐ Make☐☐ Buy
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