Achieve PMP Exam Success PMBOK Guide 3rd Edition Margaret Y. Chu (Author), Diane Altwies (Author), Edward Walker (Author) - Solutions

Unlock the secrets to acing your PMP Exam with our comprehensive resource based on the highly acclaimed book "Achieve PMP Exam Success PMBOK Guide 3rd Edition" by Margaret Y. Chu, Diane Altwies, and Edward Walker. Dive into a treasure trove of online questions and answers, complete with a detailed answers key and solution manual. Our solutions PDF offers solved problems and step-by-step answers, ensuring a thorough understanding of each topic. Benefit from our extensive test bank and chapter solutions, crafted to guide instructors and students alike. Explore this textbook with ease and enjoy the convenience of a free download.

A corporation is offering 1 million shares of its common stock to the public. Of those shares, 600,000 are authorized but previously unissued, while insiders of the company are selling the other 400,000 shares. What type of offering is this?(A) IPO(B) Primary(C) Secondary(D) Combined
Pluto Broker-Dealer is offering an IPO that will not be listed on the NYSE, NASDAQ, or any other exchange. How long after the effective date must Pluto provide a final prospectus to all purchasers?(A) 20 days(B) 30 days(C) 40 days(D) 90 days
HIJ Corporation is issuing common stock through an IPO that will trade on the OTCBB when it is first issued. Broker-dealers who execute orders for clients in HIJ common stock must have a copy of a final prospectus available for how long?(A) 25 days after the effective date(B) 30 days after the
The first time a corporation ever issues securities to the public is called a(n)(A) IPO(B) first-market trade(C) rights offering(D) none of the above
Which of the following is a function of a transfer agent?(A) Underwriting shares in new corporate stock offerings(B) Preparing corporate balance sheets(C) Advising municipalities regarding the debt structure of new issues(D) Sending out proxies
Which of the following is TRUE?I. The registrar is responsible for making sure that a corporation’s outstanding shares do not exceed the quantity of authorized shares.II. The transfer agent is responsible for making sure that a corporation’s outstanding shares do not exceed the quantity of
Which of the following is included in a preliminary prospectus?I. The purpose of the funds being raised by the offering II. Financial statements III. A written statement in red citing that the prospectus may be amended and a final prospectus issued IV. The final offering price(A) I and II(B) I, II,
A preliminary prospectus(A) may be used to help obtain indications of interest(B) may not be sent to potential investors during the cooling-off period(C) is also known as the pink sheets(D) includes the final offering price
A red herring is also known as a(A) tombstone advertisement(B) final prospectus(C) preliminary prospectus(D) stop order
All of the following are included in the preliminary prospectus EXCEPT I. the public offering price II. the financial history of the issuer III. the effective date(A) I only(B) I and II(C) II and III(D) I and III
Who is responsible to make sure the information placed in a prospectus is accurate?(A) The managing underwriter(B) The selling group(C) The SEC(D) FINRA
A registered rep may use a preliminary prospectus to(A) solicit orders from clients to purchase a new issue(B) show prospective investors that the issue has been approved by the SEC(C) obtain indications of interest from investors(D) accept orders and payments from investors for a new issue
In this type of securities underwriting a certain minimum dollar amount of securities must be sold for the offering not to be cancelled.(A) Firm commitment(B) Mini-max(C) All or none(D) None of the above
Silversmith Securities is the lead underwriter for 2 million shares of HIJ common stock.Silversmith has entered into an agreement with HIJ to sell as many shares of their common stock as possible, but HIJ will cancel the offering if the entire 2 million shares are not sold. What type of offering is
Which of the following is NOT a type of bond underwriting?(A) Mini-max(B) Best efforts(C) Standby(D) AON
Which of the following documents details the liabilities and responsibilities of each firm involved in the distribution of new securities?(A) the registration statement(B) the letter of intent(C) the agreement among underwriters(D) the code of procedure
Which of the following types of underwriting agreements specify that any unsold securities are retained by the underwriters?(A) mini-max(B) firm commitment(C) all-or-none (AON)(D) best efforts
All of the following would be found in a final prospectus EXCEPT(A) the issuer’s business plan and what they intend to do with the proceeds of sale(B) the underwriter’s agreement(C) the effective date(D) the offering price
A group organized to underwrite municipal or corporate securities is called(A) a market maker(B) a dealer’s group(C) a syndicate(D) a posse
The main function of an investment banker is to(A) advise an issuer on how to raise capital(B) raise capital for issuers by selling securities(C) help issuers comply with the laws of the Securities Act of 1933(D) all of the above
This type of state registration is used for corporations who wish to register their securities with the SEC and states at the same time.(A) Filing(B) Coordination(C) Qualification(D) Notification
This type of state registration is used for established companies that have previously sold securities within the state.(A) Notification(B) Coordination(C) Qualification(D) (A) or (B)
This type of state registration is used for securities that are exempt from SEC registration but require state registration.(A) Filing(B) Coordination(C) Qualification(D) Notification
Which of the following are types of state securities registration?I. filing II. communication III. qualification IV. coordination(A) I, III, and IV(B) II, III, and IV(C) I, II, and III(D) I, II, III, and IV
A tombstone ad would include all of the following names EXCEPT(A) selling group members(B) syndicate members(C) the syndicate manager(D) the issuer
A corporation in the process of issuing stock has not filed a registration statement with the SEC. An account executive may do which of the following relating to the new issue?(A) Accept money from customers.(B) Obtain indications of interest.(C) Guarantee to customers that they will be able to
Zamzow, Inc., has filed a registration statement and is currently in the coolingoff period. Zowie Broker-Dealer is the lead underwriter for Zamzow and is in the process of taking indications of interest.Which TWO of the following are TRUE regarding indications of interest?I. They are binding on
Under the Securities Act of 1933, the SEC has the authority to I. approve new issues of common stock II. issue stop orders III. review registration statements(A) I and II(B) II and III(C) I and III(D) all of the above
The cooling-off period for a new issue lasts approximately how many days?(A) 20(B) 30(C) 40(D) 60
KO Corp., a new company, has held back some of its shares for later use. According to shelf distribution rules, KO can sell the shares over the course of the next __________ without having to reregister the shares.(A) 180 days(B) 270 days(C) 1 year(D) 3 years
SEC Rule 415 outlines rules for(A) primary offerings(B) shelf offerings(C) secondary offerings(D) IPOs
What is the underwriting arrangement that allows an issuer whose stock is already trading publicly to time the sales of an additional issue?(A) shelf registration(B) a standby underwriting(C) a negotiated offering(D) an Eastern account underwriting
Which of the following information must be included in the registration statement to the SEC when registering new securities?I. the issuer’s name and description of its business II. what the proceeds of sale will be used for III. financial statements IV. the company’s capitalization(A) I and
The Trust Indenture Act of 1939 regulates all of the following EXCEPT(A) debentures(B) collateral trusts(C) mortgage bonds(D) Treasury bonds
Which of the following securities is exempt from the Trust Indenture Act of 1939?I. T-bonds II. GO bonds III. Equipment trust bonds IV. Revenue bonds(A) I only(B) II and III(C) I, II, and IV(D) I, III, and IV
The Securities Exchange Act of 1934 created rules regarding all of the following EXCEPT(A) the extension of credit in margin accounts(B) transactions by insiders(C) the registration of securities(D) the handling of customer accounts
The federal security law that provides rules for securities traded in the secondary market is(A) the Trust Indenture Act of 1939(B) the Securities Exchange Act of 1934(C) the Securities Act of 1933(D) FDIC
The Securities Act of 1933 was enacted to(A) require full and fair disclosure regarding sales of new securities to the public(B) regulate the exchanges and the over-the-counter market in trades of outstanding securities(C) require broker-dealers and registered reps to be licensed(D) all of the above
Which of the following securities acts covers the registration and disclosure requirements of new issues?(A) The Securities Act of 1933(B) The Securities Exchange Act of 1934(C) The Trust Indenture Act of 1939(D) All of the above
. A project manager practices cost control for his projects by calculating an EAC. Calculating the EAC by adding the remaining project budget (modified by a performance factor) to the actual cost to date is used most often when the:a) Current variances are viewed as atypical onesb) Original
. After the 5th month on her project, a project manager found that the cumulative actual expenditures totaled $120,000. The planned expenditures for this length of time were $100,000.How is the project doing?a) It is ahead of scheduleb) It is in trouble because of a cost overrunc) It will finish
. As the project manager, you are scheduling some activities in which there is a delay between the finish of the activity and the start of the successor activity.These dependencies would be reflected in the schedule with a ___________.a) Finish-to-start relationshipb) Lagc) Start-to-finish
. The procurement management plan describes how the procurement processes will be managed. It includes all of the following except:a) Constraintsb) Metrics for evaluating sellersc) Types of contracts to be usedd) Terms and conditions
. Which of the following is considered a method of accelerated depreciation:a) Sum of the years digitsb) Straight linec) Double declining balanced) a and c
. The normal risk of doing business that involves the chance of both a profit and a loss is called:a) Business riskb) Pure riskc) Chanced) Opportunities risk
. Based on the chart above, what is the SV for Case 8?a) 1,000b) 2,000c) -1,000d) -2,000
. Based on the chart above, what is the CPI of Case 9?a) 1.10b) 1.91c) 0.83d) 1.20
. In a just in time (JIT) environment, what is the inventory on hand?a) 45%b) 10%c) 12%d) 0%
. An example of cost of conformance to quality is:a) Quality trainingb) Scrapc) Warranty costsd) Rework
. Close project is a process within which knowledge area?a) Costb) Communicationsc) Procurementd) Integration
. A project manager incorporates a Pareto diagram because it helps to ______.a) Determine if a process is out of controlb) Focus on stimulating thinkingc) Explore a desired future outcomed) Focus on the most critical issues to improve quality
. The Delphi Technique is:a) A numbering system to identify each element of the WBS uniquelyb) A forecasting technique that relies on gathering expert opinionsc) An analytical technique similar to the design of experimentsd) A variation of Monte Carlo analysis
. All of the following are common characteristics of project life cycle descriptions except:a) Cost and staffing levels are low at the start, higher towards the end and drop rapidly as the project endsb) Risk and uncertainty are highest at the end of the projectc) The probability of successfully
. All of the following statements are generally true about scope control except:a) Scope control is concerned with influencing the factors that create scope changes to ensure the changes are beneficialb) Part of scope control is determining that a scope change has occurredc) Scope control must be
. In the chart above, which task is ahead of schedule and under cost?a) Task 1b) Task 2c) Task 3d) Task 4
. A procurement audit is:a) A complete set of indexed records to be included in the final project filesb) A structured review of the compliance with organizational policies and proceduresc) A structured review of the procurement process from plan purchases and acquisitions through contract
. A tool or technique for risk monitoring and control is:a) Additional risk identificationb) Additional risk planningc) Corrective actiond) Risk reassessment
. Legitimate power is:a) Derived from a person’s formal position in the organizationb) Bestowed due to a person’s personal qualities and abilitiesc) Based on a person’s charismad) Acquired based on technical knowledge, skill or expertise on some topic or issue
. Interviewing, meeting facilitation and effective communication are skills most often needed in the _________________ performance domain.a) Initiating the projectb) Planning the projectc) Closing the projectd) Professional responsibility
. What is the sender responsible for?a) Confirming that the message is understoodb) Ensuring the receiver agrees with the messagec) Scheduling communications exchanged) Presenting the message in the most agreeable manner
. Extensive use of _________ communication is likely to assist in solving complex problems.a) A project management information system(PMIS)b) Writtenc) Formald) Verbal
. A contractor completes work as clearly specified within the SOW but the buyer is not pleased with the results. In this case, the contract is considered to be:a) Complete because the contractor met the terms and conditions of the contractb) Incomplete because formal acceptance has not been
. In which type of organization is project team building generally most difficult?a) Functionalb) Matrixc) Projectizedd) Project expediter
. Forcing as a means of managing conflict is one in which:a) The person retreats from the conflict situationb) A viewpoint is exerted at the potential expense of the other partyc) Both parties give up something to get to an acceptable form of resolutiond) The disagreement is directly addressed
. A performance domain:a) Describes the processes required to ensure that the various elements of the project are properly coordinatedb) Is a category of a project that has common elements significant in a given project but is not needed or present in all projectsc) Is a broad category of
. Risk _______ will help guide risk _________.a) Score, responsesb) Rank, updatesc) Plan, reportingd) Plan, identification
. Which of the following describes a role of the project manager during the contract negotiation process?a) He or she should try to be involvedb) He or she is not involvedc) He or she supplies an understanding of the requirements of the projectd) He or she tells the contracts manager how the
. An example of a contingency response is :a) Provide allowances to account for price changes that can occur over the life of the project due to inflationb) Provide incentive fees paid to managers for good performancec) Allocate funds to offset poor cost or schedule estimatesd) Hire contract labor
. All of the following are techniques that can be used to measure the total income of a project compared to the total money expended at any period of time except:a) IRRb) NPVc) DCFd) EVT
. In the above table, which task has been completed?a) Surveyb) Remove debrisc) Dig holed) Emplace forms
. The critical path in a schedule network is the path that:a) Takes the longest time to completeb) Must be done before any other tasksc) Allows some flexibility in scheduling a start timed) Is not affected by schedule slippage
. A project has a 60% chance of finishing on time and a 30% chance of finishing over budget. What is the probability that the project will finish on time and within budget?a) 12%b) 18%c) 42%d) 48%
. The 4 layers of culture include:a) World, national, business and leadershipb) Political, geographic, social and religiousc) Technology, economics, history and knowledged) Networks, tools, personal and change
. Outputs from the communications planning process include:a) Project recordsb) Communications management planc) Performance reportsd) Formal acceptances
. The bidders’ conference is a part of which process?a) Plan contractingb) Request seller responsesc) Contract administrationd) Select sellers
. The primary objective of incentive clauses in a contract is to:a) Reduce risk for the seller by shifting risk to the buyerb) Help bring the seller’s objectives in line with those of the buyerc) Help the seller control costsd) Reduce costs for the buyer
. Which of the following statements concerning plan contracting is correct?a) Well-designed procurement documents can facilitate accurate and complete responses from prospective sellersb) Procurement documents must be rigorous with no flexibility to allow consideration of sellers’suggestionsc)
. Which of the following project scope management processes involves subdividing the major project deliverables into smaller, more manageable components?a) Create WBSb) Scope definitionc) Scope verificationd) Decomposition
. During the negotiation process, once an agreement is reached, you should do all of the following except:a) Stay positive and respectfulb) Define the agreement as specifically as possiblec) Continue negotiatingd) Express your desire for a long and prosperous relationship
. A network diagram that uses nodes to represent activities, arrows to show the activity dependencies and where no loops are allowed is a (an):a) Critical chain methodb) ADMc) AOAd) AON
. A modification of a logical relationship that allows an acceleration of the successor task is called:a) Free floatb) Early start timec) Lead time or negative lag timed) Lag time
. What is the probability of completing the project within +/- 2 standard deviations of the mean?a) 96.3%b) 68%c) 99.9%d) 95.45%
. A contract is legally binding once signed unless:a) It is declared null and void by one partyb) It is in violation of applicable lawc) One party is unable to finance its part of the workd) One party is unwilling to perform the work
. In the example above, if the goal of the project is to maximize revenue, which of the 2 options maximizes revenue and why:a) Held inside because expected monetary value is $1,800b) Held inside because expected monetary value is $920c) Held outside because the expected monetary value is $3,000d)
. Generalizations become destructive when they:a) Degenerate into stereotypesb) Are untruec) Are trued) Are believed by people
. Which of the following are outputs of the scope verification process?a) Work resultsb) Formal acceptance of deliverablesc) Inspection resultsd) WBS
. Successful projects are defined by all of the following except:a) Meeting stakeholders’ needs, wants and expectationsb) Meeting project objectivesc) Producing a quality productd) Managing teams effectively
. The major competencies needed for leadership in the 21st century are:a) Global mindset, personal stability, professional confidence and successful leadershipb) Corporate mindset, personal stability, professional education and general leadership skillsc) Global mindset, advanced education degree,
. In crashing a task, you would focus on:a) As many tasks as possibleb) Noncritical tasksc) Accelerating performance of tasks on critical pathd) Accelerating performance by minimizing cost
. The above chart is an example of a (an):a) Resource histogramb) Work assignment chartc) RAMd) Organization chart
. An input to human resource planning includes:a) PDCA cyclesb) Individuals or groups who are external to the projectc) Performance improvementsd) Collective bargaining agreements
. All of the following are information gathering techniques except:a) Interviewingb) Samplingc) The Delphi Techniqued) SWOT analysis
. Project risk includes:a) Threats to the project’s objectives and opportunities to improve on those objectivesb) Threats to the project’s objectives and contingency plans to manage those risksc) Known risks that can be quantifiedd) All known risks to the project’s objectives
. Culture is:a) Taughtb) Learnedc) Hereditaryd) Genetic
. Communication is enhanced from the sender to the receiver when the sender_________.a) Shows concern for the perspective of the receiverb) Speaks up to the receiverc) Uses more physical movementsd) Speaks slowly to the receiver
. As a project is carried out and slack time is consumed on individual tasks, the slack left over for the remaining tasks is:a) Insignificantb) Reducedc) Unchangedd) Increased
. Configuration management is NOT:a) The cause of variances and the reasoning behind the corrective action takenb) Any documented procedure used to identify the functional characteristics of an itemc) A documented procedure used to record and report changed) A subset of the overall project
. ________________ coordinate(s) people and other resources to carry out the plan.a) Resource planningb) Resource levelingc) Controlling processesd) Executing processes
. Once initiated, a project should be halted if:a) The project manager leavesb) The statement of work by the buyer is incomplete or ambiguousc) The project is found to be supportive of the organization’s strategic goalsd) The business need no longer exists
. You have just been invited to present your product to a Japanese company’s senior executives in Japan for 2 days. On initial meeting, the first thing you should do is:a) Introduce yourself and discuss the agenda for the meetingsb) Hug each participant in the meetingc) Be passive in your

Showing 5300 - 5400 of 8740

First
47
48
49
50
51
52
53
54
55
56
57
58
59
60
61
Last

Achieve PMP Exam Success PMBOK Guide 3rd Edition Margaret Y. Chu (Author), Diane Altwies (Author), Edward Walker (Author) - Solutions

Step by Step Answers